Is there a conflict between John 3:22 and 4:1-2? It seems to show that Jesus baptized in one case and yet in the other that He baptized no one.
The intent of this section in chapters 3-4 of the Gospel of John was to show that Jesus taught baptism (by full immersion).
Since we are dealing with only one writer in these verses, it is safe to say that John knew what he meant to say in each case. This is made easier when we look at John 4:1 and then at John 4:2.
John 4:1 Therefore, when the Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John
Here he says that “Jesus…baptized” which is similar to the statements made in John 3:22 as well as John 3:26. But in the next verse John clarifies what he meant by the terminology in all three verses:
John 4:2 (though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples),
In this verse it is made clear that although Jesus did not physically baptize any one, He was there teaching and empowering his disciples to do so – and in this respect this is what He is continuing to do even today.